Basic Deputy United States Marshal Integrated (BDUSMI) 2501 Exam 5 Practice

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• Which phase comes after initiation and before termination?
• Is it possible to charge someone with conspiracy for working with an undercover law enforcement officer to rob a bank?
• What happens when you place a low explosive in a container?
• Which action is NOT a stated reason to control occupants during a search?
• Who has the final say in denying boarding for any persons, including armed LEOs?
• Which primary effect is associated with heat and a fireball?
• Which statement best describes Follow Driver responsibilities?
• What is the primary function of an Advance Agent?
• How many Positions of Dominance (POD) are there?
• What two things must an individual do to satisfy intent for conspiracy?
• In the PSD blading technique, which action describes the ADV?
• The most dangerous places for any Protectee are?
• Pre-Blast Inner and Outer perimeters are established based on...
• Blasting caps are used to initiate _____ explosives.
• Legality in executing a SW is necessary because...
• Which items are examples of specialized equipment used in a search warrant?
• Which of the following is a transfer during a motorcade attack?
• Which duties describe the Limo Driver's role?
• In PSD seating, where does the LD sit?
• If money is found during a SW execution, what do you do?
• A single car motorcade is called a...
• In a two-car motorcade, which car is the second?
• Crush injuries, burns, and inhalation injuries sustained from an explosion are caused by which blast-injury category?
• In seating arrangements, the SL sits in which seat?
• Threat Level Two includes which actions?
• What is the minimum number of overt acts required to convict someone of conspiracy?
• What is the primary purpose of an Ops Plan in PSD operations?
• The Federal Good Samaritan Act is a scoping statute only.
• A Preferred Evacuation Zone is...
• Which of the following are responsibilities of the Cover/Perimeter Team?
• Which is NOT a listed reason why UC operations could end early?
• LRBL procedures: which statement is true?
• In PSD seating, where do the LR/RR sit?
• In which environment do PSDs typically conduct loose formations?
• Threat Level One behavior description
• Which statement about knowledge and intent in conspiracy is incorrect?
• What is the primary benefit of offset driving?
• According to the flow of information, after the Shift Leader receives direction, which groups are next recipients?
• What is the appropriate form of radio communication between PSD members?
• How do you negate an accusation for destruction of property?
• 3 methods of IED initiation
• How many overt acts are required to complete the offense of conspiracy?
• Define a late joiner to a conspiracy.
• Which of the following is an example of a Threat Level Three threat?
• Which formation is defined by AIC offset behind Protectee and ADV in front of Protectee?
• Which formation uniquely specifies AL behind AIC?
• A Shelter-In Place Zone means...
• Explosives in VBIEDs are usually found in...
• What best defines a motorcade?
• During a blast pressure event, what follows the initial high-pressure phase?
• Which form of identification is acceptable at check-in for armed LEOs?
• When money is found during a SW, which action is recommended?
• During a defensive circle in PSD, who faces inward?
• During a search warrant execution, which use of force policy should team members follow?
• Describe the Modified Wedge.
• True or False: the offense for Accessory After the Fact can be a felony or a misdemeanor.
• Are airlines allowed to provide prisoners with alcoholic beverages?
• What does the Cold Zone contain?
• How many hours before departure must armed LEOs notify the airline when transporting prisoners?
• Under conspiracy law, which statement correctly describes when conspiracy is established?
• The Least Risk Bomb Location is normally located at...
• When making team assignments, the Team Leader should consider which factors?
• In the Diamond formation, where are the LR and RR positioned?
• When will withdrawing from a conspiracy not result in being held criminally liable for conspiracy?
• The Protectee's most vulnerable location for an attack is
• Is it permissible to request an alcoholic beverage while flying armed if you do not consume it?
• At check-in, what should you ask about other armed LEOs on the flight?
• Define 'Backstopping' in undercover operations.
• The mere agreement becomes criminal when what occurs?
• Injuries sustained from the direct effect of the blast pressure wave on the human body are classified as which type of blast injuries?
• Which explosive type is associated with rapid detonation?
• Which of the following is a type of transfer during a motorcade attack?
• Threat Level Three on an airplane requires what kind of response?
• When someone gives a valid withdrawal from a conspiracy, what are they criminally liable for?
• Which person conducts the post-search warrant evaluation?
• VBIEDs are usually what kind of vehicles?
• Blasting caps are used to initiate which type of explosives?
• The mission statement of Aircraft Counter Measures includes which objective?
• Which of the following represents the two types of IED initiators?
• Can an overt act in conspiracy be legal or illegal?
• The cabin crew will attempt to handle the situation at which threat level?
• Who opens the Protectee's door on arrivals?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between high risk and low risk prisoners?
• Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Search Team?
• Offset driving places the limo offset to the right to achieve what?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between agreement and overt acts in conspiracy?
• Define Threat-Based PSDs.
• Phase focused on initiating the undercover operation.
• Which statement about UC Operations is true?
• Describe the purpose of an Advance Agent.
• Define Risk-Based PSDs.
• Which organization is a PSD assistance contact?
• PSD formations should be tighter in which environment?
• Which statement best defines an Improvised Explosive Device (IED)?
• During which phase does the operation end?
• Which phase does the case agent spend time reviewing background info and determining objectives?
• Which document must armed LEOs obtain at airport check-in?
• Describe the thermal effect of an explosion.
• Which of the following is the least destructive primary effect of an explosion?
• Misprision of a Felony: Does it require intent to help?
• Late joiners are criminally liable for which of the following?
• Who conducts the post-search warrant evaluation?
• Which item is an example of individual equipment?
• Who conducts the initial briefing?
• Airlines may provide prisoners with food, beverages, or metal eating utensils only with authorization. Which option reflects this policy?
• What is an armed LEO required to show at airport screening checkpoints?
• Which of the following is NOT a duty of the SW Entry Team?
• What defines an overt act in conspiracy?
• Define Vehicle-Borne Improvised Explosive Device (VBIED).
• If a late joiner does not commit an overt act, can they still be liable?
• Low explosives are designed to...
• Equipment needs are determined during which phase of a search warrant operation?
• Which of the following is true about the use of State/Local LEOs?
• If a FAM Team responds to an incident on an aircraft, what should an armed LEO do?
• Which describes when conspiracy becomes criminal?
• The statement 'You should perform activities outside your scope of employment while on a PSD to keep the Protectee happy' is true or false.
• What should armed LEOs provide at check-in to verify identity?
• Which role reports to the AIC and acts as the tactical quarterback?
• Which statement correctly describes the function of the power source in an IED?
• What is the purpose of establishing a Warm Zone?
• An overt act in conspiracy is always criminal.
• Describe the Two-Agent Escort.
• Describe Threat Level One on an airplane.
• What does the Aviation and Transportation Security Act define?
• T/F: It is acceptable to execute a search warrant without proper planning.
• How should evidence be handled during a search?
• In the information flow, who receives information directly from the Protectee?
• Which list represents the five essential elements in executing a SW?
• Which of the following describes the primary purpose of a VBIED?
• Which formation includes LR or RR as positional options?
• Which formation positions the SL offset and behind AIC?
• Does government agents counting toward the 'two or more' requirement for conspiracy make the requirement easier to satisfy?
• A Post-Search Warrant Evaluation is held...
• Which car would be last in a three-car motorcade with order Police Lead, Limo, Follow?
• During a SW, what is the minimum number of officers required to coordinate arrests?
• Which knowledge statement is accurate for conspiracy?
• List the 4 types of UC Operations.
• Members of the search teams should always search in what configuration?
• What is a potential problem encountered during UC Operations?
• Post-SW evaluation commonly contributes to which outcome?
• Who delivers the site report?
• Which is a circumstantial way to prove intent in a conspiracy charge?
• When moving from your seat to the POD, how long should that take?
• How many high-risk prisoners may be on a commercial aircraft without a waiver?
• Which role is primarily responsible for opening the Protectee's door on departures?
• The most powerful and destructive of the three primary effects of an explosion is the...
• Who establishes staging areas or safe zones in undercover operations?
• Define Aiding and Abetting.
• Which option best completes the statement: Common accusations during SW include?
• In causing the commission of a crime, what is the required intent?
• During which phase does the UCA approach the suspect?
• Which zone must be free of post-blast hazards and well away from any building in danger of collapse?
• Threat Level Two on an airplane is characterized by which of the following?
• The two distinct phases of the blast pressure effect are...
• How many initiation methods are listed for IEDs?
• Which undercover operation involves deliberate infiltration into a criminal organization?
• In a defensive circle in PSD, who faces outward?
• Describe the Three-Agent "Wedge".
• Describe the proper response of the foot formation to an attack on the Protectee.
• Which statement best describes the purpose of a Position of Advantage (POA) on an aircraft?
• The number 1 enemy of Protective Services is?
• In the Diamond formation, where is the ADV positioned relative to the Protectee?
• What is the timing of a post-search warrant evaluation?
• Which statement best describes the role of safety in a SW?
• How many persons are needed to form a conspiracy under 18 U.S.C. 371?
• Which phase is associated with evaluating results and conducting debriefing after operations?
• Identify the following type of undercover operation: An investigator suddenly assumes a shallow undercover role.
• Two requirements for a valid withdrawal from conspiracy.
• Which of the following is a factor considered by LEOs when deciding how to respond to air piracy or a crime of violence on board?
• Threat Level Four on an airplane involves which action?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of an IED?
• Security sweeps should be carried out in which manner?
• During check-in procedures upon boarding, which form must be presented to flight crew?
• Which of the following is an example of Threat Level Three activity?
• High explosives are designed to...
• What is often seen at detonation during the thermal effect of an explosion?
• Define exigent circumstances onboard a commercial aircraft.
• Which threat level is defined by an attack on the flight deck?
• Which statement correctly identifies the two main categories of IED explosives?
• In a two-car motorcade, which is the first car?
• Which statement best describes background stories in UC operations?
• Which formation description includes Wall to left?
• Which statement about UFAN is true?
• T/F: a search and seizure warrant authorizes the search of persons present
• Limo Driver responsibilities include which of the following?
• Primary Purpose of a PSD.
• True/False: Only those in attendance at the briefing should participate in warrant execution.
• Which characteristics define a high risk prisoner?
• Issues at the ticket counter or boarding gate should be escalated to whom?
• In PSD seating, where does the ADV sit?
• What is the primary purpose of a motorcade in protective security operations?
• Which action is advised when an accusation of theft is made?
• Advantages of using State/Local LEOs include:
• Threat Level Four threats involve which scenario?
• Violations of the law require which approvals?
• In a PSD convoy, the Protectee sits in which seat?
• In a three-car motorcade, which car is the first?
• In a secured warrant operation, which description best defines the Cold Zone?
• Describe the timing of Aiding and Abetting.
• What does AIC stand for in PSD terminology?
• What should be done with vehicle doors during protective operations?
• For Aiding and Abetting to apply, which condition must be true?
• Which role serves as the primary liaison with the Protectee and provides close body protection?
• Who covers the Protectee's door when the motorcade first arrives?
• During a PSD, you should maintain ___ security at all times.
• Which event would be considered an exigent circumstance requiring immediate action by a law enforcement officer?
• For a four-hour or more flight with low-risk prisoners, what is the minimum number of armed LEOs?
• Which statement best describes ongoing threat scanning after an incident involving FAM?
• Where is the POD located on an aircraft?
• Why do you control occupants during a search?
• Define UFAN.
• Elements of Aiding and Abetting.
• During a search, what is the primary objective concerning items listed on the search and seizure warrant?
• During which phase does the case agent conduct a post-operational briefing?
• Establishing verbal and non-verbal signals for trouble/rip-off situations and preparing and testing all UC equipment occurs during which phase?
• The Warm Zone is defined as...
• When searching rooms, which pattern do two team members use?
• Must the overt act in conspiracy occur after the agreement?
• For a four-hour or more flight with low-risk prisoners, what is the minimum number of armed LEOs?
• What is the Least Risk Bomb Location (LRBL)?
• The key element of surprise is...
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a POA location on an aircraft?
• Describe the Single Agent Escort.
• Which of the following statements about overt acts is correct?
• What are the duties of the SW Entry Team?
• What is the standard three-car motorcade order (first, second, third)?
• In PSD seating, where does the FD sit?
• Which of the following is an example of a POA on an aircraft?
• The material most commonly responsible for secondary fragmentation injuries is which material?
• When should state or local law enforcement be notified about a search warrant execution?
• Withdrawal timing: If you withdraw before the overt act, you are not liable for conspiracy, but may be liable for acts committed during membership. Which of the following are those acts?
• Which items are examples of individual equipment used by team members during a search warrant?
• What must be left at the house when you leave?
• What is the primary objective of UC Operations?
• Final stage where results are reviewed and the operation is closed.
• Which choice correctly defines the term 'escort detail'?
• How many Positions of Advantage (POA) are there?
• Who should take control of an IED on an aircraft?
• Define Misprision of a Felony.
• Which phase involves evaluating the operation after it has ended?
• Which of the following is an example of an exigent circumstance on a commercial aircraft?
• During the blast pressure effect, what is the initial phase called?
• List the four components of an IED.
• Which statement is included in the mission statement of Aircraft Counter Measures?
• Aiding and Abetting timing: before or during the crime.
• Which of the following is NOT a type of scan conducted when responding to an act or air piracy?
• Which UC operation type is conducted for a longer duration?
• Who is eligible to fly armed under this policy?
• VBIEDs usually contain nitrates.
• During security sweeps, the SW entry team is primarily searching for what?
• Which factor limits a late joiner's criminal liability?
• Which items are necessary to complete a PSD Ops Plan?
• Define primary fragmentation.
• Identify the undercover operation type that lasts from several weeks to several months.
• Which term describes the non-emergency transfer?
• Who opens the Protectee's door upon departures?
• SW Team Selection should be based on...
• Which of the following best describes the Hot Zone?
• What is a primary function of the case agent in UC operations?
• Injuries caused by fragmentation and debris propelled from an explosion are classified as which type?
• Define secondary fragmentation.
• A Mandatory Evacuation Zone means evac inside and outside of buildings.
• In a three-car motorcade, what is the second car?
• Potential hijackers may initiate ___ to draw out identity of LEOs.
• Arrests during the execution of a SW should be...
• Which description best explains the relationship among the AIC, SL, and ADV?
• Two components of pipe bombs
• Which statement is true about staging areas in UC operations?
• Which statement about background stories is most accurate?
• Explain the timing of Accessory After the Fact.
• In a three-car motorcade, what is the third car?
• True or False: UC Operations require prior agency approval.
• During boarding gate procedures for armed LEOs, which action is listed last in the sequence?
• What should be done with vehicle windows during protective operations?
• Which action is an immediate action during a motorcade attack?
• Which statement about withdrawal is true?
• Which item is NOT listed in the ADV to SL site report?
• The timing of a Misprision of a Felony requires actions to occur after which event?
• What does the Federal Good Samaritan Act say about federal law enforcement officers?
• In the SW context, which factor helps ensure evidence admissibility?
• For a four-hour or less flight with low-risk prisoners, what is the minimum number of armed LEOs?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a PSD assistance contact?
• Which items are part of the check-in procedures for armed LEOs?
• A vehicle used to transport an IED is classified as a VBIED.
• UC is selected during which phase of UC Operations?
• Which practice helps ensure safety and thoroughness during searches?
• What is the primary purpose of the cover/extraction team?
• Which car is first in a three-car motorcade?
• Which of the following accurately describes the high risk category?
• Which of the following best describes the purpose of backstopping background stories?
• In the Diamond formation, where is the SL positioned?
• True or False: A late joiner is criminally liable for offenses committed prior to joining.
• Disadvantages of using State/Local LEOs include:
• Injuries that occur when the human body is propelled by the blast pressure wave and impacts the ground, structures, or other stationary objects are classified as which type?
• Describe the Simple/Modified Diamond.
• UFAN is used to identify which group?
• Which item is listed as a pipe bomb component?
• In a two-person conspiracy, does a valid withdrawal by one conspirator terminate the conspiracy?
• Which statement best describes a weak side arrival/departure?
• Secondary purpose of a PSD.
• Which statement about a circumstantial factor to prove intent is accurate?
• A vehicle transfer due to a non-emergency or non-attack situation is called?
• The LRBL is normally located at which exit type?
• What is the purpose of the Aviation and Transportation Security Act?
• Which option is NOT a principal reason for briefing the Protectee?
• Which factor is explicitly listed as a consideration when deciding to respond to air piracy or crime of violence?
• Who does the AIC pass information to next in the chain of command?
• Which of the following is NOT a phase of UC Operations?
• UCAs are introduced to all members of the operational team during the initiation phase.
• Which statement accurately lists the responsibilities of an ADV?
• ___ and ___ must ALWAYS be strictly observed when executing a SW.
• Define Improvised Explosive Device (IED).
• Define 'Undercover Operation'.
• Which zone is outermost within a secure perimeter?
• Which statement most accurately describes the Follow Driver's role in the motorcade?
• In a one-car motorcade, that car is called...
• Post-SW evaluation helps in which of the following?
• Identify the following type of undercover operation: Investigator functions in a UC role for a short duration due to the nature of the investigation.
• Which items should be included in the notification to the airline when transporting prisoners?
• What is an example of a sound off during a foot formation attack?
• Who handles Threat Level One situations on the aircraft?
• Can members of the cover team change their assigned posts at any time?
• Which statement best summarizes the overall purpose of a motorcade's formation?
• PSD personnel should always maintain a ___ relationship with Protectee.
• For a four-hour or less flight with low-risk prisoners, what is the maximum number of prisoners one armed LEO can control?
• Entry tools are categorized as which type of equipment?
• The Hot Zone is defined as...
• A Mandatory Evacuation Zone means...
• Which option lists the four requirements for Knock and Announce?
• Which statement best describes the focus of the Special Aircraft Jurisdiction?
• What is the ratio of armed LEOs to high-risk prisoners with a waiver?
• Shelter-In-Place Zone means moving to which distance?
• Attire for a PSD.
• Injuries from the blast where the body is hurled and strikes ground or structures are classified as which blast-injury type?
• Which of the following is a method to negate an accusation of theft?
• Which of the following is one of the four ways to approach a suspect in undercover operations?
• What is the last step in the boarding gate procedures for armed LEOs?
• The post-search warrant evaluation is scheduled during which stage?
• Elements of Causing the Commission of a Crime.
• Identify the undercover operation that requires extensive planning and infiltrating deep into criminal organizations.
• Which statement best describes a strong side arrival/departure?
• Common accusations during the execution of a SW include:
• Which option is NOT a defined type of UC operation?
• The MOST IMPORTANT element in executing a SW is...
• Which statement about overt acts in conspiracy is correct?
• A minimum of how many rows of passengers nearest to LRBL should be moved forward?
• If an accusation of theft is made, what should you do?
• Define the Special Aircraft Jurisdiction of the United States.
• What is the purpose of an IED initiator?
• What does the power source for an IED do?
• Which description best matches the recommended approach to security sweeps?
• Elements of Accessory After the Fact.
• Which statement best describes whether a late joiner must commit an overt act?
• In the Diamond formation, where is the AIC located relative to the Protectee?
• Which item is not an example of individual equipment?
• Which training course must be completed to fly armed?
• 75% of secondary fragmentation injuries come from which material?
• What is the ratio of armed LEOs to high-risk prisoners without a waiver?
• Late joiners are not criminally liable for which of the following?
• How is a low risk prisoner defined?